Solution
Because p is odd, let p = 2m+1. First we calculate 1^2 + \dots + (p-1)^2 \mod p. We do this by realizing that 1^2 = (p-1)^2 \mod p, 2^2 = (p-2)^2 \mod p and so on. Every term will have a "pair", so the sum is: 1^2 + \dots + m^2 + (m+1)^2 + \dots + (p-1)^2 \equiv 2 (1 + \dots + m^2) \mod p \equiv m(m+1)(2m+1) \equiv 0 \mod p because 2m+1 = p. This means that 2^2 + \dots + (p-1)^2 \equiv -1 \mod pNext we calculate 1^3 + \dots + (p-1)^3 \mod p. We do this by realizing that p = 1 + (p-1) | 1^3 + (p-1)^3, p=2+(p-2) | 2^3+(p-2)^3 and so on. Like above, each term will have a pair that it cancels out with. Thus 1^3 + \dots + (p-1)^3 \equiv 0 \mod p, so 2^3 + \dots + (p-1)^3 \equiv -1 \mod p.
Now we also have that 1+\dots + (p-1) \equiv 0 \mod p, so 2 + \dots + (p-1) \equiv -1 \mod p. From this, we have: 2\sum_{i < j \in S} ij \equiv (-1)^2-(-1) \equiv 2 \mod p \sum_{i < j \in S} ij \equiv 1 \mod p because p is odd.
Now, for any real numbers a_1, \dots, a_n, let us define the following variables: A = a_1 + \dots + a_n B = \sum_{i < j} a_i a_j C = \sum_{i \neq j } a_i^2 a_j D = \sum_{i < j < k} a_i a_j a_k E = a_1^2 + \dots + a_n^2 F = a_1^3 + \dots + a_n^3 Then we have: AB = (a_1+\dots+a_n)(a_1a_2 + a_1a_3 + \dots + a_{n-1}a_n) = C + 3D The identity from middle to right is because for each a_i in A, it's either paired with a_ia_j or a_j a_k in B. If it's paired with a_i a_j then it would contribute towards C, otherwise it would contribute towards 3D. Likewise, each term in C and 3D can be traced back to AB. Each term a_i^2 a_j in C comes from a_i in A and a_i a_j in B. Each term 3a_i a_j a_k in 3D comes from three sources: a_i in A and a_j a_k in B and its permutations. To further convince ourselves, A has n terms, and B has n(n-1)/2 terms, so AB has n^2(n-1)/2 terms. 3D has n(n-1)(n-2)/2 terms and C has n(n-1) terms, so altogether they have n^2(n-1)/2 terms.
Furthermore: C = a_1^2(A-a_1) + a_2^2(A-a_2) + \dots + a_n^2(A-a_n) = AE - F So: 3D = AB-C = F + AB-AE This identity holds for any real numbers a_i, and it's based on pure algebraic manipulation. We can apply this identity to our set S. We already know that F \equiv -1, A \equiv -1, B \equiv 1, E \equiv -1 \mod p. From there, we have 3D \equiv -3 \mod p, which means (3D+3) is divisible by p. Because p > 3 then D+1 is divisible by p.
This comment has been removed by the author.
ReplyDeleteThis comment has been removed by the author.
ReplyDeleteI use the following method
ReplyDeletef(x)=(2x−1)⋯((p−1)x−1)= \displaystyle\prod_{k=2}^{p-1}(kx−1)
If I write f(x) = \displaystyle\sum_{k=0}^{p-2} c_{k}x^{k}, then what we want to find is c_3/(-1)^{p-5} = -c_3.
But we know that f'''(0) = 3! (-1)^{p-5}c_3 = -6c_3 and so I proceed to find f'''(0) as follows,
f'(x) = \displaystyle\sum_{k=2}^{p-1} k \frac{f(x)}{kx-1}
f''(x) = \displaystyle\sum_{k=2}^{p-1} k \frac{f'(x)(kx-1)-f(x)k}{(kx-1)^2}
f'''(x) = \displaystyle\sum_{k=2}^{p-1} k \frac{f''(x)(kx-1)^3 - 2kf'(x)(kx-1)^2 -2k^2f(x)(kx-1)}{(kx-1)^4}
and we can get f(0), f'(0), f''(0) and finally f'''(0) as desired. All the calculations will be on \mathbb{Z}_p where p \geq 5. so I can ignore the denominators if it's only divisible by 2 or 3 and make things much easier.